AASM Sleep Technologist Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which symptom suggests excessive CPAP pressure rather than inadequate airway collapse?
• What conditions are antidepressants used to treat?
• The failure to remove electrode paste residue will most likely result in:
• The measured distance from the nasion to the inion is 32cm. What is the distance from the inion to Oz?
• A type 2 sleep study must include all of the following EXCEPT:
• What are tricyclics used for?
• The preferred type of amplifier in polysomnography utilizes which signaling configuration?
• Atrial fibrillation is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
• Central sleep apnea can be seen in all of the following sleep stages EXCEPT:
• What effects does alcohol have on sleep?
• What term describes the ability of a differential amplifier to minimize signals that are present on both inputs?
• Which cardiac arrhythmia requires immediate intervention?
• What SpO2 decrease is recommended to score an event as a hypopnea?
• Benzodiazepines are commonly used for which conditions?
• During calibration, the technician verifies electrode response commands. Which option lists an equivalent way to phrase this?
• An epoch on a polysomnogram is how many seconds long?
• What effects do antipsychotics have on sleep?
• What are two major classes of antidepressants?
• What effect does nicotine have on sleep?
• All are potential causes of central sleep apnea EXCEPT:
• What is the recommended minimum/maximum differential for IPAP and EPAP settings during a BIPAP titration?
• Which step best addresses artifact by addressing the hardware rather than the signal processing?
• Which two points on the 10-20 placement system are used to locate F3?
• What is the danger of using two ground wires on a piece of diagnostic equipment?
• What is the frequency of Beta waves?
• Which of the following is an example of a barbiturate medication?
• Which statement describes hematocrit more accurately?
• In communicating with deaf patients, which statement about communication is accurate?
• Which of the following is a safe guideline for identifying what actions and observations should be documented by the tech?
• Which of the following is a common cause of secondary PLMS?
• Which electrode site is found halfway between the inion and nasion?
• What is a known effect of sedative-hypnotics on sleep-disordered breathing?
• The MOST common cause for insomnia in the general population is:
• How is REM latency calculated?
• What is the recommended time required before increased the PAP pressure during a titration study?
• According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, portable monitoring is an appropriate choice for:
• How is the percentage of wake time calculated during sleep?
• Where should conductive paste be placed in relation to the gold cup wire?
• The electrode array used for recording physiologic activity is referred to as:
• During a titration study a patients apneas are eliminated at 10cmH2O by hypopneas and snoring continue at 16cmH2O. According to recommended guidelines, the appropriate pressures to begin a bilevel titration is:
• Which action is NOT appropriate when a patient experiences a seizure in the sleep lab?
• All of the following statements are true about the changes seen from stage N2 to N3 EXCEPT:
• Which statement accurately describes mood stabilizers?
• What was the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) reported in the data?
• How do you calculate Total Sleep Time (TST)?
• In polysomnography, sensitivity is generally measured in:
• In polysomnography, what duration is traditionally used to segment data for sleep-stage scoring?
• What is the most desirable sampling rate for the respiratory airflow signal?
• How many mixed apneas were recorded?
• Which neurotransmitter is absent during REM sleep according to the material?
• Which statement is true regarding Type 2 sleep studies?
• What is the minimum duration required for a sleep study recording?
• During a bilevel positive airway pressure titration, which setting is increased to eliminate apneas?
• Which statement best describes why sleep stage percentages are calculated in PSG reports?
• What is the purpose of the material safety data sheet (MSDS)?
• Antidepressants suppress which stage of sleep?
• Central sleep apnea can be seen in all of the following sleep stage EXCEPT:
• Which statement best describes common mode rejection?
• Following RECOMMENDED guidelines, which would be an appropriate time to end an MWT?
• What is the standard paper speed used for a sleep study?
• During CPAP titration at 10 cm H2O, if SpO2 values stay 80-85% for 10 minutes with no respiratory events, what is the best action for the tech to take?
• Which action is recommended if snoring persists on CPAP at the current setting?
• Which of the following would be a contradiction of PAP therapy?
• The ability of an amplifier to cancel external interference that is common to both input signals is called?
• In sleep staging, the letter 'R' denotes which sleep stage?
• During biocalibrations, which statement is true?
• Which statement about arousal scoring is most consistent with guidelines?
• During bilevel titration, which setting is used to address central apneas?
• A patient suffering from a seizure must be admitted to the hospital rather than continuing the sleep study in all of the following circumstances EXCEPT when the patient:
• Which channel is used to monitor muscle tone in a standard polysomnography recording?
• Which frequency range defines delta waves?
• Cheyne-Stokes respiration is a pattern of recurrent central apneas alternating with a crescendo-decrescendo of tidal volume. Which option completes this statement?
• Paradoxical insomnia is also called:
• What are the recommended LFF/HFF settings for an EMG channel?
• On CPAP, central apneas appear at 15 cwp. What is the most likely cause?
• The apnea hypopnea index is reported as the:
• In which sleep stage is waking most difficult due to the deepest sleep?
• According to recommended guidelines for titrating supplemental oxygen during PAP titration, which statement is correct?
• Which of the following statements about REM sleep behavior disorder is true according to the material?
• During which sleep stage is the arousal threshold highest?
• What is the minimum time required before increasing PAP pressure during a titration study?
• What is the RECOMMENDED number of observed hypopneas needed in an adult patient before increasing pressure during a titration?
• What is the percentage of NREM sleep (rounded to the nearest percentage)?
• Which statement is an EXCEPT for criteria used to score an apneic event in adults?
• What condition would require a full face mask or oral mask during a CPAP study?
• If the measured distance from nasion to inion is 36 cm, what is the distance from Cz to Pz?
• Which of the following is not part of scoring pediatric obstructive sleep apnea?
• Lithium has which sleep effect?
• In a sleep study context, which measurement is used to assess arterial oxygen saturation?
• In an adult polysomnogram, which item is considered optional to include in the report?
• K complexes are often seen
• Average volume-assured pressure support (AVAPS) focuses on maintaining which aspect of the respiratory process?
• Indirect monitoring of oxygen level by sensors that detect light wave absorption is performed by which device?
• Which pattern of cardiac variability is commonly seen in patients with obstructive sleep apnea?
• What should the tech do first to make sure the proper test is being performed?
• Paradoxical breathing is identified by channel deflections that are:
• How many hypopneas were recorded?
• If a patient with claustrophobia asks to end a PSG, what is the next best step?
• Which artifact is specifically addressed by ensuring the room is cooler and using a fan during EEG recording?
• Which statement about orofacial masks is accurate?
• What are mood stabilizers used for?
• Which option does not tend to increase leakage current?
• Which action violates the principles of proper body mechanics?
• Which statement best describes an obstructive apnea?
• Which sleep position is most likely to worsen obstructive airway events during a sleep study?
• The capnograph reading zero on both patient and tester is most likely caused by:
• What is the preferred LFF setting for an EEG channel?
• The emergence of central respiratory events during PAP titration for treatment of obstructive sleep apnea is best described as
• Which of the following is an adequate chemical disinfectant used to clean surfaces?
• Where is the tape measure placed when measuring the circumference of the head?
• Sinus bradycardia is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
• The most common method to monitor blood oxygen saturation during polysomnography is:
• Which option best completes this statement: 'Supplemental oxygen should be initiated during PAP titration if SpO2 falls below 88% for greater than 15 minutes'?
• The first step in artifact isolation is:
• In the described patient with obesity and daytime fatigue, which factor most contributes to the risk of obstructive sleep apnea?
• Adaptive servo ventilation is an effective treatment for which sleep-related breathing disorder?
• Which class of hypnotic agents increases sleep spindle activity?
• In stage 2 non-REM sleep, which feature is typical?
• Consuming alcoholic beverages before a sleep study is likely to have which effect on the patients sleep architecture?
• Increasing the gain would result in what change in the EEG waveform?
• Which filter settings are most appropriate for EEG, EOG, EKG, and EMG channels respectively?
• How many central apneas were recorded?
• In pediatric obstructive sleep apnea scoring, a 90% or greater decrease in amplitude must occur for at least what percentage of events?
• What is the consequence of leaving electrode paste residue on the skin?
• Which of the following arrhythmias qualifies as a medical emergency?
• What term describes the arrangement of electrodes used to record multiple signals in polysomnography?
• Which stage shows the highest proportion of delta waves?
• True statements about the process of biocalibrations include all of the following EXCEPT:
• Which action best describes a recommended step if you have not fallen asleep after 20 minutes?
• Which statement best describes obesity hypoventilation syndrome?
• To score an obstructive event, what is required of the SpO2 data?
• Which of the following disorders involves sudden or gradual onset of loss of language skills and is characterized by nocturnal multifocal spikes and spike-wave discharge?
• Which practice best describes reviewing patient information prior to sleep study?
• Stimulants reduce which sleep stage?
• What is the most important aspect of fielding a patient's questions in the morning following the sleep study?
• Which task is NOT required before beginning a PSG study?
• The distance from Fpz to T4 is 14 cm. What is the distance from Fpz to F8?
• Maxillomandibular Advancement treats OSA by:
• Clonazepam increases which sleep parameters?
• The MSLT consists of how many daytime nap opportunities?
• What is the most common side effect of proper CPAP use?
• The purpose of an intentional leak is to:
• G1 and G2 in a simple monitoring setup represent which of the following?
• The Berlin questionnaire is used to screen for risk of which sleep disorder?
• What statement about CPAP leaks is true?
• If the head circumference is 56 cm, what is the distance from Oz to O1?
• What duration is the minimum required to score an arousal?
• What is the purpose of the low frequency filter?
• Sleep spindles are characterized by which frequency range?
• During physiologic calibrations, technicians perform this to verify what?
• Heated humidity can remedy which conditions associated with sleep testing?
• Which of the following low-frequency/high-frequency filter settings appropriately isolate the significant frequency ranges in the EEG channels?
• Which condition is most likely to cause slow wave artifact in the EEG and EOG channels?
• In PAP titration, how should supplemental oxygen be delivered?
• Which action is NOT helpful in identifying a 60-Hz artifact?
• In normal sleep architecture, stage 2 sleep makes up what percent of total sleep time?
• CO2 monitoring, using either end-tidal or transcutaneous sensors, is mandatory in children for the scoring of:
• Key things to look for in REM behavior disorder montage are:
• Sudden, involuntary, abnormal electrical disturbances in the brain that can manifest as alterations of consciousness, convulsions, and loss of consciousness are known as:
• What percentage drop in the SpO2 data must be seen to score an obstructive event?
• In patients with pseudohypertrophic Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which sleep-related problem is NOT typical?
• During nasal congestion management with a nasal mask, which step is typically included in the problem-solving sequence?
• Given 46 total respiratory events over 4 hours of sleep, the average number of events per hour is closest to which value?
• If an epoch contains both stage N1 and N2 qualities, the epoch should be scored as:
• The best way to eliminate artifact is by:
• Which EEG electrode lies halfway between O1 and T3?
• Which statement best describes the minimum duration criterion for acceptable PAP titration outcomes in terms of RDI and sleep position?
• What are beta-blockers used for?
• On an EKG tracing, the QRS complex corresponds to which cardiac event?
• Actigraphy is primarily used to assess sleep-wake patterns by recording movements from which limb?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard electrical safety measure for PSG equipment?
• What is the primary difference between thermistors and thermocouples?
• Criteria necessary to score an arousal in NREM sleep include all of the following EXCEPT:
• Sleep spindles are:
• What effect does Clonazepam have on sleep?
• Which of the following statements about stage N3 sleep is true?
• Oral appliance is an alternative option for patients with:
• Which EEG rhythm is observed during relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed?
• Which sensors need to be cleaned and disinfected?
• What effects do benzodiazepines have on sleep?
• Which device is used to monitor oxygen saturation during sleep studies?
• In a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT), how is sleep onset defined?
• A 43-year old male who is 5'8 tall and weights 275 lbs, with no history of smoking or alcohol abuse, complains of trouble falling asleep, headaches, and daytime fatigue. His wife complains that his legs are kicking her while she is asleep. He most likely has:
• What is the most important reason for performing a Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MWT)?
• Which formula correctly calculates the percentage of time spent in N3 sleep?
• Using the 10-20 placement system, if the head circumference is 58 cm, what is the distance between C3 and O1?
• Heated humidity can possibly remedy which of the following conditions seen in some patients?
• Which of the following is an example of a non-benzodiazepine medication used for sleep?
• What effects do Non-Benzodiazepines have on sleep?
• Appropriate values for scoring sinus bradycardia/tachycardia include which of the following?
• Which of the following is TRUE of supraventricular tachycardia?
• Barbiturates are used for which primary purposes?
• In ASV titrations, what is the setting called that controls the parameters of the IPAP pressure?
• When periodic limb movements of sleep are scored as an event, which statement is false?
• The tool that asks about daytime tiredness, snoring, and hypertension is which of the following?
• For an average adult, what sleep stage is predominately found in the first third of the night?
• Among the listed respiratory events in the dataset, which occurred the fewest times?
• What is the frequency of Alpha waves?
• What is the most likely sensitivity setting for the EEG in a polysomnogram?
• Decreasing the sensitivity would result in what change in the EEG waveform?
• The primary reason for instructing patients to clean masks daily is to:
• Which of the following is NOT a stimulant used to treat ADHD or narcolepsy?
• What additional parameter would be MOST helpful to monitor when recording a patient with COPD?
• When there is confirmed ventricular tachycardia lasting more than 30 seconds, what is the most appropriate action?
• A premature P wave is referred to as which of the following?
• After a sleep study has been completed, the tech should soak and air-dry which piece of equipment?
• Average Volume-Assured Pressure Support (AVAPS) is intended to maintain which respiratory parameter?
• Obstructive apnea in pediatric patients is most often associated with which condition?
• Excessive warming and humidification in CPAP therapy can cause:
• During healthy respirations in NREM sleep, the brain relies on the hypoxic drive to trigger breaths. The hypoxic drive triggers a breath when which blood gas increases sufficiently?
• Which formula correctly calculates the percentage of time spent in N2 sleep?
• Which sleep stage is most associated with K-complexes?
• Overcompensation for mask or mouth leaks when using auto-titrating CPAP (APAP) is MOST likely to result in:
• Which of the following factors does not tend to increase impedances?
• What is the correct starting CPAP pressure in cmH2O?
• The cEMG provides information on all of the following EXCEPT:
• Which SpO2 change is required for central apnea scoring?
• The T wave on an EKG represents which of the following?
• Which pair of EEG derivations shows the highest amplitude of slow-wave sleep?
• Which statement best describes a typical objective of reducing sweat sway artifacts during EEG/EOG monitoring?
• Which statement about hypopneas in the dataset is correct?
• The number of events that occur within a particular period of time is called:
• In CPAP titration, if the order's medical intent is unclear and a patient claims never had a sleep study before, which option is NOT appropriate?
• Which channel is used to assess muscle tone during sleep studies?
• Which LFF and HFF combination is RECOMMENDED for routine monitoring of EOG signals?
• Which statement best describes the Maintenance of Wakefulness Test (MWT)?
• In which study does a patient try to stay awake in a darkened room?
• Which region of the brain shows the majority of alpha rhythms during the PSG?
• What is the sleep efficiency (rounded to the nearest percentage)?
• Which artifact is most likely caused by loose or intermittent contact of the electrode leads?
• What effects do sedative-hypnotics have on sleep?
• While in the sleep lab, a patient has to do all of the following EXCEPT:
• What are SSRIs used for?
• Periodic limb movement in sleep (PLMs) are defined as:
• When applying supplemental oxygen to a CPAP titration study, the setting at which the oxygen should be started is:
• If the oximeter data during a study is corrupted, what is the appropriate action?
• Electrical safety requires all of the following actions from a tech EXCEPT:
• Before a tech begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a patient, basic life support procedures require the technician to do which of the following?
• A mixed apnea is best described as which of the following?
• A patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis would be MOST at risk for:
• What is the most likely practice to improve patient comfort when nasal congestion persists during CPAP use, aside from pharmacologic options?
• The recording of eye movements in sleep studies is based on which electrical potential?
• How is Sleep Efficiency Index (SEI) calculated?
• What is the total daily sleep requirement (including day naps) for a two-year-old infant?
• Patients who suffer from frequent sinus infections should be advised not to wear which of the following masks?
• If a patient on CPAP at 11 cwp continues to snore, what is the recommended action?
• In an EKG tracing, the QRS complex corresponds to which cardiac event?
• What is an acceptable impedance threshold for EEG electrodes to ensure good signal quality?
• Which term describes going to bed early and waking early?
• When electrical signals from external sources interfere with signals derived from the patient, this is referred to as:
• What are antihistamines used for?
• Liquid oxygen is stored at what temperature?
• Barbiturate use is associated with which pattern of sleep changes?
• After a sleep study, which equipment is most commonly soaked and air-dried before reuse?
• Alpha waves are most prominent during which condition?
• What is the total wake time (TWT), in minutes?
• Total recording time (TRT) is defined as the interval from lights off to lights on.
• What is the standard length of time of each epoch during the scoring of stages in a PSG?
• The purpose of an intentional leak in PAP therapy is to
• The syndrome characterized by prolonged episodes of severe hypoxemia and associated PaCO2 elevation that worsens during sleep is:
• Which of the following is the RECOMMENDED impedance level for EEG electrodes?
• After proper prep swabbing, the prep site should be which of the following?
• Which of the following is true about CPAP mask leaks?
• A _____ study is used to look for seizure activity during sleep
• Which electrode site is not typically used in a baseline montage?
• Which symptom is characteristic of central sleep apnea during apneic periods?
• Reasons to alert the physician of an immediate need to review a patient's study include all of the following EXCEPT:
• If the nasion-inion distance is 32 cm, what is the distance from the inion to Oz?
• Which value best represents the normal REM percentage during total sleep time?
• Which medication is used to treat allergies?
• In communicating with deaf patients, the interviewer should:
• Sleepwalking and night terrors are common in the ages of:
• REM percentage of total sleep time is calculated as REM time divided by total sleep time. Given REM = 45 minutes and total sleep time = 275 minutes, what is the REM percentage?
• Which EEG electrode is half the distance from O1 to T3?
• A patient in the lab for a CPAP titration states they have never had a sleep study before. Which action would NOT be acceptable to resolve this situation?
• What physiological effect does CPAP have on the body?
• Excessive warming and humidification will cause:
• Which filter would be used to adjust the rise time of a signal?
• Sleep walking belongs to which category of sleep disorders?
• Which of the following is NOT a way to decrease condensation in humidifier tubing?
• Using the 10-20 system, the C4 lead is located what percentage of the circumference away from C3?
• Sleep latency is defined as which of the following?
• A mixed apnea is characterized by which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT considered good sleep hygiene?
• The proper way to score a major body movement-dominated epoch in a recording is described by which of the following?
• REM sleep occurrence during MSLT is often assessed by detecting:
• To stage an epoch as N3 sleep, in what percentage of the epoch MUST its identifiers be present?
• Where is the O1 lead located in relation to the T3 lead?
• What are some possible causes for secondary PLMS?
• Cheyne-Stokes respiration is best described as a pattern of recurrent central apneas alternating with a crescendo-decrescendo of tidal volume. Which option completes this statement?
• Which observation is used to identify REM sleep during a sleep study, as reflected in bio calibration and testing procedures?
• What effect do stimulants have on sleep?
• In obstructive sleep apnea, leg movements during sleep that disturb a partner are most consistent with which condition?
• During PSG setup, which action is performed by the technician?
• Which electrode site is approximately 10% above the inion?
• If total sleep time is 240 minutes, how many hours does that correspond to?
• The preferred type of amplifier in polysomnography is:
• What is the minimum duration of a K complex?
• What occurs during hypoventilation?
• For an average adult, what sleep stage is predominately found in the last third of the night?
• End of an apneic event is defined by renaturation of at least what percent?
• What should the tech do if the patient awakens and complains that the pressure is too high?
• Which of the following is FALSE with regard to liquid oxygen?
• During bilevel PAP titration, which setting is sometimes used to treat central sleep apnea events?
• Which statement about Cheyne-Stokes respirations is true?
• To ensure REM sleep has a chance to occur during a multiple sleep latency test nap, how long should the nap continue?
• Which of the following is NOT a sleep-related intervention described for REM sleep behavior disorder?
• Leg EMG leads are placed on which muscles and at what distance apart?
• According to scoring guidelines of the American Academy of Sleep Medicine, which piece of equipment is used to identify hypopnea?
• Which statement is true regarding consent for an in-lab sleep study?
• Which sleep stage is characterized by sleep spindles and K-complexes?
• Excessive transient muscle activity found in REM sleep indicates which of the following sleep disorders?
• Where are the reference electrodes M1 and M2 placed on the head?
• Gloves should be used by the tech when in contact with all of the following EXCEPT:
• The polysomnograph has taken a leakage current of 200uA. What should the tech do about this?
• Which medication is a stimulant used to treat ADHD and narcolepsy?
• Twitching movements of the fingers, toes, and mouth that may occur during stage W, non-REM, and REM sleep are known as:
• What is the recommended start pressure for pediatric and adult CPAP titration?
• What is considered one of the most important roles of the recording technologist during sleep studies?
• Which statement about arousal scoring in adults is BEST?
• Sweat artifact look like:
• The most common reason for changing the PAP interface during titration is:
• All of the following are indications that a patient is entering stage N1 sleep from the wake stage EXCEPT:
• The BEST way for the tech to explain how CPAP helps eliminate obstructive apnea is to explain that:
• Which brain structure is involved in autonomic functions, homeostasis, endocrine processes, emotions and sleep regulation?
• What is the most common reason for encountering an unacceptable leak value during PAP titration?
• In atrial fibrillation, which ECG finding replaces P waves on the surface ECG?
• An alternating EEG pattern seen during quiet sleep in a newborn infant, consisting of both high and low-voltage activity is termed:
• Which artifact is targeted by a 60-Hz notch filter in EKG recordings?
• The normal Heart Rate is?
• Beta blockers decrease which sleep parameters?
• What intervention most effectively reduces 60 Hz artifact in EEG recordings?
• During PAP titration, the pressure should be increased until which combinations are eliminated?
• During polysomnography, which of the following can create skin irritation, such as a rash?
• Which term describes going to bed early and waking up early?
• Tachycardia during sleep is defined as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute for at least 30 seconds or longer. Which option correctly states this definition?
• What causes EKG artifact in the EEG and EOG channels?
• What are two sleep-related effects antidepressants can have?
• Staging choices for infants include which combination?
• What can be done to improve sweat sway artifacts on the EEG and EOG channels?
• What is the total recording time (TRT), in minutes given the data?
• What is the maximum recommended CPAP for patients under the age of 12 years?
• When airflow changes do not meet the criteria for obstructive apnea or hypopneas, respiratory effort event related arousals can be estimated by:
• In sleep scoring, an arousal in NREM sleep must last at least how many seconds?
• Which EEG electrode is half the distance from F8 to Fz?
• What percentage drop in the SpO2 data must be seen to score an obstructive event?
• Cheyne-Stokes respirations are most commonly associated with which conditions?
• Excessive transient muscle activity during REM sleep is most strongly associated with which disorder?
• What is the normal range of oxygen saturation?
• When fitting a patient with a CPAP mask, it is important to check that:
• A hypnagogic jerk is best defined as a muscle spasm occurring during which sleep transition?
• Central apnea is characterized by which of the following?
• Which neurotransmitter is increased during the awake state; decreased during stages 1, 2, and 3 non-REM sleep; and absent during REM sleep?
• Which of the following is true about Fatigue Severity Scale ranges?
• What is the minimum number of hours that an overnight nocturnal polysomnogram should last to obtain adequate data?
• Which statement about hematocrit is FALSE?
• Oral appliance is typically considered for patients with what level of obstructive sleep apnea?
• Which of these channel types produces a square calibration wave?
• Which equation is true regarding sensitivity?
• Which of the following EEG frequencies can be seen during an arousal from sleep?
• The purpose of physiologic calibrations is to:
• The frequency at which eye blinking occurs is most typically:
• Which item should be logged into the patient data system before the sleep study?
• Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of central sleep apnea?
• What is the primary benefit of heated humidification during PAP therapy?
• What is the preferred low-frequency filter setting for an EEG channel?
• What is the RECOMMENDED minimum and maximum IPAP-EPAP differential?
• Which sleep parameter is affected by antidepressants?
• During which sleep stage is rapid eye movement with dreams most common?
• What is the apnea index (AI) according to the provided data?
• Which statement best describes an obstructive apnea?
• REM behavior disorders in usually treated with
• Which term describes misperception of sleep duration and quality?
• A premature P wave is referred to as which of the following?
• How many obstructive apneas were recorded?
• Which of the following medications is a mood stabilizer used to treat bipolar disorder?
• Following proper prep swabbing, the skin at the prep site should be in which of the following conditions?
• The newborn EEG pattern described as alternating high and low voltage during quiet sleep is called trance alternant.
• If the CPAP pressure is set and left below a patient's optimal pressure, what may occur?
• ECG artifact in the EEG channels is BEST confirmed by comparing the:
• According to pediatric guidelines for CPAP titration, how many hypopneas must occur before increasing pressure?
• What is the definition of a K complex?
• A normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a P wave and QRS complex present with each beat, having a QRS interval of:
• The best method for detecting apneas and hypopneas during PAP titration is to use which signal?
• Which statement best describes why electrode impedance levels are kept low in polysomnography?
• A patient’s chart indicates home oxygen use of 3.0 L/min, with orders to start without supplemental oxygen and add 1.0 L/min if SpO2 is less than 89%. What is the BEST action for the tech?
• Which item is typically included as a required pre-PSG step?
• BIPAP S/T mode is described as allowing breaths that are either spontaneous or timed.
• Sinus arrhythmia in a 5 year old child is:
• Which statement about the removal of paste residue from the patients in the morning is true?
• An artifact that results in salt bridges is most likely caused by
• Nicotine may cause:
• Which would increase the resolution of EEG spikes?
• Which statement is true about thermocouples and thermistors?
• What are anticonvulsants used for?
• Ketonuria, Kussmaul respirations, hyperglycemia, and fluid imbalance are characteristics of:
• The physician's orders indicate the patient is in the lab for a CPAP titration study; however, the patient insists he has never had a sleep study before. Which action is NOT acceptable to resolve this situation?
• Which device monitors carbon dioxide concentration during sleep studies?
• Asking the patient to look left/right and up/down during biocalibrations is intended to mimic which common situation found during healthy sleep?
• What is the purpose of the American Sleep Apnea Association A.W.A.K.E program?
• A patient is snoring on CPAP 11cmH2O. What is the best course of action for the tech to take?
• Which EEG waveforms are in the correct order from the highest to the lowest frequency?
• Which statement best describes the function of a differential amplifier?
• One criterion for scoring pediatric respiratory effort-related arousals (RERAs) is that nasal pressure is reduced by what percentage, compared to baseline?
• Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) that are too high may cause:
• _______ is measured in Hertz (Hz) and ______ in microvolts (uV)
• How is WASO (Wake After Sleep Onset) calculated?
• When a patient states they feel like they are suffocating and cannot get enough air when on CPAP, they are most likely complaining of:
• Gabapentin has what effect on sleep arousals?
• During a CPAP titration study a patient at a CPAP pressure of 15 cm who is still snoring and having hypopneas complains that the pressure feels too high and she cannot sleep. What should the tech do?
• In the example with G1=60µV and G2=10µV, which is the output signal voltage?
• What should be initial pressure setting be for a CPAP titration study?
• To estimate heart rate from a 30-second ECG, you multiply the count of QRS complexes by:
• Central sleep apnea is characterized by which of the following?
• Which EEG frequency is associated with alert wakefulness?
• If a sleep tech identifies a 3-second pause in heart rate during monitoring, the recommended first action is to
• In a PAP titration, which observation is a direct indicator of flow limitation?
• G1=60µV, G2=10µV. What is the output signal volatage?
• What are antipsychotics used for?
• What is the frequency of Theta waves?
• Sleep debt is best described as which of the following?
• Obstructive sleep apnea is normally at its worst when the patient is:
• What is the RECOMMENDED LFF/HFF for the EOG and EEG channels?
• Sleep state misperception is also known as which term?
• During review of a sleep study scoring report, the tech notes that the lowest SpO2 is listed as 0%. What should the tech do next?
• What is the normal percentage of TST spent in REM?
• Which of the following is an example of a benzodiazepine medication?
• The circumferential measurement is 58cm. What is the distance between O1 and O2?
• Which of the following are the recommended impedance levels for the EEG electrodes?
• Real-time access to PAP compliance data exemplifies which purpose?
• Which of the following constitutes good sleep hygiene?
• The formula for calculating a PLM index is:
• People with obstructive sleep apnea have a higher risk of which condition?
• Which formula correctly calculates the percentage of REM sleep (R) time?
• Which statement best describes changes from stage N2 to stage N3 sleep?
• Which type of waves have a frequency of 13-35 Hz, an amplitude of less than 30uV, and are present during normal wakefulness when the patient is alert?
• In routine sleep study monitoring, which LFF and HFF combination is commonly used for EOG signals?
• Which statement is FALSE regarding orofacial masks?
• During stage N2 sleep, if the patient changes position and there is increased snoring and a rising leak, the tech should:
• Which impedance level is considered acceptable for EMG channels, such as limbs or chin?
• Correct statements about acceptable PAP titration results include all of the following EXCEPT:
• Which device produces its own electricity?
• Is it possible to designate hypoventilation without PaCO2 data?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between P waves and QRS complexes in a healthy rhythm?
• When should the tech review the patients history and become familiar with any special needs the patient might have?
• Z-drugs are non-benzodiazepine medications primarily used to treat what condition?
• The rate at which a wave repeats itself or oscillates is called the:
• Which statement about staying in the sleep lab during a study is NOT true?
• The emergence of central respiratory events during PAP titration for treatment of obstructive sleep apnea is:
• In stage N1 sleep, which pattern is typically observed?
• The amount of blood pumped through the ventricles is known as:
• In patients with pseudohypertrophic Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which sleep-related problem is NOT typical?
• A simple way for a sleep technologist to estimate heart rate is to count the number of QRS complexes in a 30 second epoch and:
• What is the normal NREM to REM cycle?
• The respiratory event that requires oxygen desaturation and/or an arousal as part of the scoring criteria is:
• Which filter is typically used to remove power line electrical noise?
• Which brain region is primarily associated with autonomic control, sleep regulation, and endocrine processes?
• For home treatment with positive airway pressure, which humidifier care practice is recommended?
• Under guidelines for multiple sleep latency testing, four nap opportunities would be acceptable when the patient:
• Which method is used to distinguish ECG artifact from true neural activity when a QR complex is present?
• Good sleep hygiene includes which of the following?
• In patients with severe sleep-disordered breathing, the most common response after successful PAP titration is which?
• Tidal volume is defined as which of the following?
• Which of the following is characteristic of sleep during the second trimester of pregnancy?
• In an EKG, the P wave represents which event?
• Beta waves are typically associated with which state?
• Which task must be completed before beginning a PSG according to the material?
• What has the largest impact on adherence to PAP therapy?
• Which of the following impedance values would NOT be acceptable for EEG electrode contact quality?
• Which medication would MOST likely be used for treatment of RLS?
• Which statement best describes sleep in generalized anxiety disorder as seen on polysomnography?
• Barbiturate use is associated with a decrease in which sleep stage?
• The artifacts that are most likely to cause high-amplitude, low frequency waves seen on the EEG are:
• During a diagnostic sleep study, which device should be used to monitor airflow?
• In a differential amplifier, which statement best describes its primary function?
• A common side effect of CPAP is which of the following?
• The ability of a differential amplifier to minimize signals similar to both inputs is known as:
• During a PAP titration, signal flattening in the nasal pressure monitor indicates:
• Which of the following filter settings are most appropriate for recording EMG channels?
• What is the RECOMMENDED number of observed hypopneas needed for a pediatric patient before increasing pressure during a titration?
• Actigraphy is the?
• In scoring periodic limb movements, an event begins at the first rise in EMG at or above what amplitude?
• Accessory equipment such as a CPAP machine or radio placed near the headbox may cause:
• If the respiratory airflow sampling rate is reduced from 100 Hz to 25 Hz, which consequence is most likely?
• Which change would increase the resolution of EEG spikes and improve waveform definition?
• Which syndrome is described by obesity, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and insulin resistance?
• The apnea-hypopnea index is reported as the average number of apneas and hypopneas seen per hour of sleep.
• Prior to the sleep study, which item should be logged into the patient data system to identify the session?
• A bipolar derivation utilizes how many electrodes that overlie an electrically active area?
• If SpO2 remains suboptimal during titration, what action is commonly recommended as a next step to optimize PAP therapy?
• The 60-Hz notch filter is used to eliminate which type of artifact in EKG recordings?
• Which of the following is true about paste residue handling after a sleep study?
• For Americans the most common sleep disorder is:
• How often should sleep techs participate in quality assurance reviews of their performance?
• Which of the following is identified as a common cause of EKG artifact in EEG/EOG channels due to electrode placement?
• Total sleep time was reported as how many minutes?
• In polysomnography, which channel is used to monitor cardiac electrical activity?
• The Berlin questionnaire assesses which of the following?
• Which measurement helps distinguish central from obstructive apnea during sleep study?
• Tegretol decreases REM sleep?
• What is the hypopnea index (HI) according to the provided data?
• What effect do Tegretol (carbamazepine) have on sleep?
• Which of the following factors is most likely to cause 60Hz artifact?
• Which feature is characteristic of Stage N2 sleep?
• How do you calculate Total Recording Time (TRT)?
• What is the total sleep time (TST), in minutes given the data?
• Morning/evening questionnaires ask the patient to indicate which of the following?
• Which of the following is an antipsychotic medication?
• BIPAP S/T stands for
• Which of the following is true with regard to electrode impedances?
• Beta waves have a frequency range of 13-35 Hz and are observed during which state?
• Which of the following is NOT true of EEG during stage 2 non-REM sleep?
• Which factor does not tend to increase impedances?
• After 3 years of CPAP use, a patient reports excessive daytime sleepiness. Which of the following is a possible cause for CPAP no longer providing optimal sleep?
• Where are the two inferior chin electrodes placed?
• What is the best practice for pre-titration patient education according to standard sleep lab guidelines?
• What is the minimum duration for an apnea event to be counted?
• What is the RECOMMENDED starting pressure for CPAP?
• Alcohol can suppress which stage(s) of sleep?
• Dopamine agonists, opioids, anticonvulsants, and benzodiazepines are therapeutic interventions for:
• What respiratory event is defined by at least 10 seconds of no airflow with continuing respiratory effort?
• What is the range of normal scores on the Fatigue Severity Scale?
• Which device is NOT a flow monitoring device in a sleep study?
• During sleep, a sustained heart rate of 90 beats per minute or higher for 30 seconds or longer is termed what?
• For EMG recording, which bandwidth setting best preserves muscle activity frequencies?
• Each P wave in a normal sinus heart rhythm is associated with:
• Which device receives and transmits signals from 0-1 volts?
• To calculate the apnea/hypopnea index, which metric must be known?
• Sleep efficiency is defined as:
• Which statement best describes the effect of opening the eyes on alpha activity?
• In pediatric sleep studies, nasal pressure reduction used to identify RERAs is what percentage?
• The patients medical history indicates the patient has been taking tricyclic antidepressants for the past 5 years. The tech should anticipate the patients may have an increased likelihood of:
• There is no maximum time limit for obstructive apneic events to be scored.
• The Cz to Pz distance represents what fraction of the nasion-to-inion distance when that total distance is 36 cm and Cz-Pz is 7.2 cm?
• What is the frequency of Delta waves?
• Which of the following is FALSE with regard to the MSLT?
• REM atonia is primarily generated by which brain region?
• What sleep parameters are affected by beta blockers?
• During PAP titration, achieving an RDI less than 5 for at least 15 minutes with supine REM sleep observed at the pressure is an example of what?
• In pediatric obstructive apnea, which symptom is most often observed?
• The best candidate for oral appliance therapy would have?
• If a patient experiences mouth breathing while using a nasal-only mask, which sequence should the tech try to alleviate the problem before switching to a full-face mask?
• When should a sleep tech test equipment for accuracy and function?
• Which patient profile would be the best candidate for oral appliance therapy?
• Muscle artifact can be corrected by
• What is the recommended number of observed apneas needed for an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration?
• In generalized anxiety disorder, polysomnography is characterized by which of the following?
• In EEG/ PSG data management, increasing the sampling rate primarily increases:
• What electrical issue arises when a diagnostic device has more than one ground path, creating a loop with potential difference that drives current between grounds?
• In a healthy 5-year-old child, sinus arrhythmia is considered which of the following?
• The electrode located 30% above the left pre-auricular crease is:
• The techs duties include all of the following EXCEPT:
• During Cheyne-Stokes respirations, pulse oximetry typically shows which pattern?
• How do you calculate the percentage of time spent in N1 sleep?
• During observation of a PSG, which of the following positions yields more severe obstructive events and louder snoring?
• Cataplexy is a:
• According to the American Academy of Sleep Medicine, which should all patients receive before a PAP titration begins?
• Which mask type is most commonly associated with discomfort compared with nasal masks?
• What sleep parameters are decreased by antihistamines?
• What is a sedative-hypnotic commonly used for?
• Total wake time (TWT) can be calculated as the difference between total recording time and total sleep time.
• The two inferior chin electrodes are placed on the:
• Flow monitoring devices that may be used on patients during a sleep study include all of the following EXCEPT:
• A bipolar derivation utilizes which of the following?
• Which EMG filter setting is typical for sleep study recordings?
• Occurrences in a sleep study that must be scored include all of the following EXCEPT:
• What is the minimum length required for an arousal?
• According to the AASM scoring manual, a pause in the heart rate for 3 seconds or longer is called?
• Which class is primarily used to treat psychosis, especially schizophrenia?
• What is the minimum AHI to diagnose obstructive sleep apnea according to the material?
• What is required by American Academy of Sleep Medicine guidelines to run a multiple sleep latency test?
• Why is precise head measurement important in a PSG?
• One criterion for scoring Cheyne-Stokes respirations is that the crescendo-to-decrescendo breathing pattern lasts for how long?
• Which calibration term refers to applying a calibration signal of low voltage to all amplifiers using the initial study values?
• What instrument adjustment would BEST enhance visualization of N3 sleep?
• Which statement best describes the effect of zolpidem and zaleplon on sleep architecture?
• Which of the following is part of the Centers for Disease Control's isolation guidelines?
• Which of the following would be a reasonable optional item to report on an adult PSG?
• What is the percentage of REM sleep (rounded to the nearest percentage)?
• Which of the following is not a therapy for narcolepsy?
• What are opioids used for?
• How is Sleep Latency calculated?
• During a CPAP titration at 15 cmH2O, if the patient is restless and has frequent obstructive events, the BEST action is to:
• The goals of PAP therapy include all of the following EXCEPT to:
• All of the following are indications that a patient is entering stage N1 sleep from the wake stage EXCEPT:
• Which drug class is commonly used to treat REM sleep behavior disorder?
• The symbol 'G1' represents which electrode in the standard setup?
• Chin EMG activity during REM sleep is typically:
• NPSG stands for_________________________.
• What is the highest grade level at which patient education materials and consent forms for polysomnography should be written?
• The capnograph is reading zero on the patient and on the tech who tests the cannula. The most likely cause of the equipment failure is:
• What effects do opioids have on sleep?
• Which statement best describes the function of a material safety data sheet?
• Which statement best describes impedance in EEG recording?
• Which statement best describes the effect of benzodiazepines on sleep architecture?
• Delta waves must be how many microvolts (µV) in amplitude to count toward stage N3 sleep percentages?
• The amount of space needed to archive digitized data is most impacted by:
• Pulse oximetry measures